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01/18/2007

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Mark Smeltzer

Philosophical methodry bent on achieving a specific result in a set of subjects is a rather tenuous practice...

The best way to produce a desired result is to take special, particular care to fashion a package that will appear fashionable in the eyes of the subjects. This is called marketing. From there, the goal would be to lull the subjects to act in a manner consistent with taking ownership of the contents of that package. This is called sales.

Now, if the goals of the philosophical enterprise are best explained in terms of marketing and sales, many so called "philosophical tools", like logic and reason, will have little relevance. For the best marketers and salesmen known enough logic and reason to twist them to their advantage. A good salesman, one who regularly produces results, pays no special care to avoid affirming the consequent unless he knows that his subject would respond negatively. The good salesman anticipates his subject's reaction; he never asks a question he does not know the answer to.

When I do philosophy, results be damned, it is in the context of a personal quest for Truth. Debate and rationale discourse are valuable insofar as they serve to assist in highlighting weak, flawed, or otherwise suspicious features of my thought. What happens along the way, the results, are all very interesting features of the tale, but I worry over any suggestion that these features, however modest, ought be the central prize.

Eric Schwitzgebel

Interesting post, John! I'm sympathetic, but I do have two thoughts (not having read Van Inwagen's chapter, I should confess).

First, should the "success" of a philosophical argument be defined in term of its effect on an actual audience? What about a brilliant argument that fails to gain any adherents because of some fault or perversity in the audience? Should we consider an "idealized" audience, perhaps? Well some people have more taste for appeals to idealized this-and-thats than others. Maybe there's some less audience-dependent standard to consider.

And second, I worry that your criteria might make too many arguments successful. I'm thinking here of the sort of undergraduate who is blown about by the winds, and finds herself agreeing with whatever she has read most recently....

John Fischer

Eric,

Thanks! Yes, I'm sorry--I should have been clearer about this-- Peter Van Inwagen and I are talking about an "idealized audience"--say, an "idealized agnostic" under certain idealized circumstances. Of course, part of the trick would be to spell out the conditions of idealization, which Peter does to some extent. I agree that one might be skeptical about idealization.

Mark:

Well, it sounds really bad to say this, but philosophy is sometimes kind of like "sales"--at least it is clearly about persuasion. What else is an argument except an offering of reasons in an attempt to persuade? Maybe the fact that we are seeking to persuade an idealized audience under idealized conditions can help to assuage the lingering sense of crassness...

Mark Smeltzer

John,

After reading Van Inwagen's piece, I still have very little sense of what an "ideal" audience is like.

Suppose the debate is over compatibilism and incompatibilism, what properties would the "ideal" audience have?

One way to attempt to answer the question would be to frame the audience in terms of the related beliefs that will certainly bear on the debate. So, the question could be: Does the "ideal" audience for the compatibilist/incompatibilist debate subscribe to:Substance dualism? Property dualism? Property realism?
Value realism? Moral realism? Ethical realism?
Epistemological methodism? Experimental particularism? Dogmatic particularism?
Correspondence theory of truth? Coherentist theory of truth? Pragmatist theory of truth?
Epistemic externalism? Reliablism? Virtue epistemology? Epistemic internalism? Epistemic coherentism? Epistemic pragmatism?
... and so on and so forth will all the other related disciplines of philosophy!


Moreover, what would an "ideal" audience be like for a debate over the law of non-contradiction (which is not held as objective law in many Eastern philosophies)? This one could really throw a defender of an "ideal" audience for a loop...

Eric Schwitzgebel

Thanks for the reply, John. Yes, of course, (as you politely refrained from pointing out!) you already described the audience as an "idealized agnostic" several times in the post. However, you characterized an idealized agnostic as "a person who is 'neutral' in the sense that he has no particular antecedent inclination to accept the relevant position"; I guess I was thinking about other aspects of idealization, besides neutrality, which are perhaps more philosophically problematic (like "ideally rational"). I didn't make that clear in my hastily-written comment, I'm afraid! Maybe you intended to be idealizing in some of those other ways, too. Of course, the thing I should do is just go out and look at the Van Inwagen.

Thanks again for the thought-provoking post.

Joe

Mark and Eric both raise some interesting questions about the "idealized agnostic." Following Mark, we might ask: Is the "idealized agnostic" only agnostic about the specific area of debate? I'm sure I would have more luck trying to convince someone who was, say, a dualist and a theist that the free will thesis was true than I would have trying to convince someone who was, say, a materialist and an atheist.

Following Eric, we might ask: is the "idealized agnostic" ideally rational? If not, then we're really talking about arguments that are merely persuasive and not necessarily good in any philosophical sense.

Putting it all together it seems that the "idealized agnostic" is going to have to be ideally rational yet agnostic about substantive philosophical issues. Is such an creature even possible? Perhaps a graduate student in mathematics would do!

I tend to think that there are a number of ways that a philosophical argument might be deemed a success. By some standard both McTaggart's argument for the non-existence of time and Zeno's argument for the non-existence of motion are very successful. Yet not because they are convincing to agnostics about time and motion (if there are any).

Recently I had lunch with a graduate student at the APA. During the lunch I presented an argument for compatibilism. The student works in ethics and epistemology but does no work on free will. By the end of the lunch she claimed that she no longer thought that compatibilism was a crazy view. I thought that my argument was a huge success! I generally think that I've done a good job if I can convince a few students in my undergraduate metaphysics class that compatibilism is not a crazy view.

This is not to say that Peter's own criteria isn't of interest. I found it (and John's contrasting view) to be very interesting. It is also interesting to note that perhaps Peter is correct in claiming that all substantive philosophical arguments are arguments, given his criteria. If this were true, that would be very interesting, as well. I just think that there are a multitude of ways that philosophical arguments may be deemed successful apart from the ways noted by Peter and John.

Personally, I think that the argument from evil (for the non-existence of God) is unsound. But I have a hard time calling it a 'failure.'

Jussi Suikkanen

The models introduced here all address mainly what doing positive constructive philosophy aims at. And, that's all well and good. Yet, an essential part of the fun (yes, I admit it) of philosophy that goes back to Socrates is the destructive, negative part of finding holes in other people's arguments and views. That part of philosophy fits better the idea that we are engaging in a dialogue with other people who hold opposite views and try get them to give up their views or weaken their degrees of confidence to them. As Fischer writes, in the two-person dialogue model success is measured both by how much less convinced they are about their own view and how much more convinced they are about ours.

However, I'm not sure how this part of philosophy fits the idea of addressing a third party who is an idealised agnostic or fairminded person without prior commitments. If she is thus defined, the she has no inclination yet to believe the competing views that are alternatives to my view. In this case, I would have no motivation to try to find faults in those views. That the other view is bad does not itself count for my view and so that cannot get her to believe in my view at all. This would mean that negative philosophy is unsuccesful from the start. But, that's spoiling the fun. Philosophy is to a large degree a contact sport... Sometimes, during the dark times, I think that that is mainly what philosophy achieves.

Kip Werking

I wrote a fairly long (3.5 pages) response to Van Inwagen's article. I understand that some people view the purposes of blogs differently than I do, and may appreciate shorter comments (without cluttering the blog), so I thought it may be more appropriate to post this short comment with a link to my full response:

http://ktwerk.people.wm.edu/vinwagen.doc

"Q" the Enchanter

I'm not sure I see any advantage of gearing arguments to an idealized agnostic. Besides the methodological problems (identified quite well by Mark Smeltzer in his comment above), the traditional strategy gets all the same arguments out into the open (including metaphilosophical arguments like burden-shifting and question-begging) and is much more entertaining to boot.

I'm also much more optimistic about the ability of keen argument to persuade even the most committed opponents to some degree. Changes in position in light of new evidence and argument really do happen (indeed, I can almost sense my opponents' changing their minds as they read this...), and I would think we'd be better off studying those cases of successful persuasion carefully to see what we can carry away.

Finally, it's very hard for me to imagine in the abstract how an argument that has enough power to persuade committed opponents wouldn't have an equal-or-greater persuasive effect on a mere agnostic.

David K. Lewis

I think the procedure of revising our opinions piecemeal, guided in part by theoretical conservatism and in part by the pursuit of theoretical unity, is what we call `being reasonable' … Is it that we must prove that it is reasonable to be reasonable? That proof should be a one-liner. Is it that we must find something to say that would, of necessity, make anyone who heard it become reasonable forthwith? That would be a spell, not an argument. Must we prove, from no questionable premises, that those who are reasonable will never fall into error? That is not to be expected.

Manuel

I would have thought that dead men post no comments, but I couldn't agree more with the view. (Can I cite this? Is it wrong to cite the posthumous postings of brilliant philosophers?) :-)

Alan

John--

Doesn't van Inwagen's whole approach assume that the determination of success assumes an ideal situation where all relevant terms of argument are disambiguated or conceded to have some agreed gloss? I say this only because when I consider some classic instances of what I'd call success in philosophical argument, they are ones of significant clarification of disputed terms of argument in a larger context. For example, prior to the 20th century, it appears most disputants about the ontological argument thought that Anselm had one argument that could be equivalently expressed two ways. But now it's generally agreed that Anselm offered two forms of argument that awaited modal logic to clearly discern them. In our own area of FW, Frankfurt's refreshing splash was to reconstruct the classical compatibilist claim of physically freely doing what one wants into a similar psychological structural property of freely identifying with what one wants. Your own work significantly refines questions of freedom and responsibility and argues they can be split. These are successes in my book, for they push thinking forward into contemplating more complexity and subtlety of issues. Van Inwagen's own consequence argument is such a success as well, getting us to be clearer about non-transferability and such. I'd say that perhaps his point is a good one about cogence of argument given settled terms, but I'd more strongly advocate a different measure of success for argument as improvement of understanding and appreciation of our potential level of ignorance at any given time. And this measure of success would have to be recognized even by trenchant advocates of an opposing view where the distinctions are drawn, for they are forced to respond to any challenge they afford.

Anthony D'Amato

Is there an idealized audience for Kripkenstein's view of quaddition? I might argue that such an audience would understand it perfectly, whereas you might argue that any audience that purports to understand it is deluding itself. Thus, having canceled out the audience, we're back to ordinary philosophizing.

Joe

Great post, Alan! I'd like to hear what John says about it.

I want to make two clarifications and raise some questions. First, I think that there are a variety of ways in which a philosophical argument might be deemed a success. ONE of those ways is articulately nicely by Peter and contrasted just as well by John.

It is interesting that, according to Peter's criteria, substantive philosophical arguments are rarely if ever successful. John allows for more success. I tend to agree with John. What do other people think?

Second, I think that one important type of success for a philosophical argument has little to do with persuasion. Alan mentioned Peter’s consequence argument. As many gardeners know, I am obsessed with that argument. I see the main elements of the argument everywhere -- in G. Strawson’s basic argument, in Mele’s zygote argument, even in Frankfurt-style counterexamples. In my mind, no philosophical argument is more successful.

Yet I’ve never found the argument to be persuasive. I was a committed compatibilist when I first I first encountered it, and I’ve always regarded it as a challenge. Perhaps I’m not the “idealized agnostic” but that is just the point.

I have something to say about Anthony's interesting post, as well, but it will have to wait until tomorrow!

tnadelhoffer

My worry about the "ideal but impartial audience" model of philosophical persuasion is that it always leaves an escape clause for the losing party. Imagine two philosophers--one of whom is a proponent of T1 and the other of whom is an opponent of T1. Now imagine they actually present their respective arguments for (and against) T1 to an impartial audience. At the end of these presentations, we take a poll which reveals that 80% of the agnostics were more convinced by the arguments of the opponent of T1 than they were by the proponent's arguments. What will the proponents of T1 say? That the conditions were not ideal. After all, if they were ideal, the participants would have been swayed by the arguments for T1 rather than by the arguments against it.

What we would need from the start for this whole process to work is for the opposing parties to agree in advance with respect to what conditions are going to count as "ideal" so that we could use the audience's verdict to settle the issue at hand. But what incompatibilist worth her salt will concede that there are ideal conditions under which compatibilism will be more convincing to impartial observers than incompatibilism? Isn't each party to the debate going to assume from the start that under ideal conditions their own view is the most intuitive? If so, the "ideal but impartial audience" model is not going to be very helpful.

By my lights, this model won't be of much use unless and until we have an agreed upon account of which audiences are "impartial" and which testing conditions are "ideal." Of course, if everyone could agree with respect to these two issues, we could then straightforwardly set up studies to test which competing philosophical theories are the most intuitive/persuasive. However, I am skeptical that such agreement can be reached.

Joshua Alexander

It strikes me that van Inwagen slips from a psychological point to an epistemological one. Take, for example, van Inwagen’s claim concerning the potential that philosophical arguments have for success provided a two-party-model standard:

"I very much doubt whether any argument, or any set of independent arguments, for any substantive philosophical conclusion has the power to turn a determined opponent of that conclusion, however rational, into an adherent of that conclusion." (p. 45)

Why think that this is the case? From what I gather, van Inwagen’s thinks that, whatever premises one adduces in favor of some conclusion, a determined opponent of that conclusion *can* always refuse to accept one or more of the premises. Now, there are two ways of reading the *can* here: a psychological reading and an epistemological reading. Further, it seems to me that van Inwagen has in mind (here and elsewhere in the paper) the psychological reading. However, it would seem that the interesting philosophical issue concerning the potential that philosophical arguments have for success has to do with the epistemological reading. That is, what is really at issue when we are considering whether or not an argument is successful is whether the argument ought to convince a rational, reasonable interlocutor or audience not whether or not it will.

Mark Smeltzer

Tom,

I am not sure what Van Inwagen's notion of philosophical failure has to do with your notion of settling debates. Could you clarify?

It seems like you are interested in setting up an actual debate format to test the persuasiveness of various claims, and further that you are suggesting that this method would be useful for empirically testing the success of an argument. However, isn't that merely equating success with persuasive power?

Truth conductivity should play a more vital role in determining philosophical success than persuasiveness... On a truth conductivity view, even an unsound argument could be counted as successful if it has helped us move closer to the truth. That might be enough to underwrite Joe's desire to call the consequent argument a success.

tnadelhoffer

Mark

I am not sure I made myself clear. First, you suggest that I am "equating success with persuasive power"--but that is not quite right. I was simply trying to raise a problem I have with the attempt on the part of both Van Inwagen and Fischer to define the success of a philosophical argument in terms of whether it would convert (or have some affect upon) impartial observers under ideal conditions.

My point was just that in order for this whole approach to gauging the success of a philosophical argument to work, we would need an account of what conditions are going to count as ideal. If we could agree upon which conditions count as ideal, we could in principle then run controlled and systematic studies to test which of two competing theories is more succesful--i.e., which one "moves" impartial laypersons the most under ideal conditions. Unfortunately, I do not think that philosophers will be able to agree upon or specify when these conditions are met. Hence, I have suggested, that the proposed method for establishing the successfulness of philosophical arguments cannot get off the ground.

Perhaps I should have worded my point in the form of a dilemma: Either we can agree in advance concerning what is going to count as an ideal condition or we cannot. If we cannot reach such an agreement, the the "ideal but impartial" model won't do any good. If, on the other hand, we can agree with respect to what will count as an ideal condition, then we can run studies to determine which of two competing theories is succesful.

I take it that your point is that at best this approach will reveal which of two competing views is the most persuasive, but it will not shed any light on which of the two is correct.

Since I am not advocating the "ideal but impartial audience" model, this is not a problem for me--rather, it is a problem for the proponents of the model. All I really wanted to do was simply point out that the so-called ideal conditions are going to have to do a lot of work to make the model useful.

David Alexander

Joshua,

You wrote: "That is, what is really at issue when we are considering whether or not an argument is successful is whether the argument ought to convince a rational, reasonable interlocutor or audience not whether or not it will."

I think van Inwagen takes care of this worry by making the audience (or in the case you present the opposing party) ideal. By making the audience ideal it will be the case that what they in fact do is what one ought (rationally) to do.

Joshua Alexander

Hi David,

Thanks for your response. Let’s suppose that you’re right: van Inwagen can takes care of my worry by supposing the audience to be ideal—whatever it is that they in fact do is what one ought rationally to do. What then is the motivation he has for moving from a two-party-model where both subjects are ideal in this sense to the audience-model where all subjects are ideal in this sense? If no argument can persuade an ideal interlocutor, I must admit that I fail to see how it can persuade an ideal audience.

Maybe at this point, van Inwagen would respond by pointing out that, on his account, the audience is not only ideal but also both impartial and agnostic. But it would seem that an ideal interlocutor in the relevant sense should be capable of overcoming any tendencies towards partiality or dogmatism; were she not, then what she in fact did would not be what one ought rationally to do.

Patrick Todd

Hi all,

Here’s a thought: some of the disagreement concerning which model of argumentative 'success' is best might be resolved if we become pluralists about 'success'. Why think there is such a thing as success *simpliciter* that one’s account ought to allow for here? Rather, why not think that there's only success in ways, i.e. *success at doing such and such*?

If that’s the case, then if we’re arguing about whether a particular argument is successful, we’ll need to specify just what we’ve got in mind by ‘success’: success at convincing an idealized agnostic? At changing the mind of a hardened opponent? Or merely at inclining a neutral agnostic towards a position? And so on. If you say, “No, I’m talking about just success, plain and simple,” then I think one can plausibly argue that there’s no such thing.

One would of course say analogous things concerning failure. Hence, on this line, PvI wouldn’t say that the argument from evil is a failure *simpliciter* (as he does), but simply a failure in the sense that it would fail to convince an audience of idealized agnostics. That’s an important conclusion, but the argument could be successful in other important ways.

jon kvanvig

Here's one way to think of the issues involved in PvI's approach to philosophical argumentation, a way that I'm surprised Gardeners sensitive to Frankfurt counterexamples and the conditional fallacy haven't pointed out. Suppose we think of a philosophical argument as an attempt to encapsulate in an efficient presentation what the total information available about a particular subject matter reveals. In short, it is an instance of attempting to display what the total evidence shows. Maybe "success" can mean other things, but one of the more interesting things one might mean by that term is having provided in succinct form an account of what the total evidence available shows about a particular proposition. So, suppose that's what we are talking about. Then the idea of cashing out this idea in terms of ideal agnostics and what ideal responses they would have to an argument is just another example of the inclination to operationalize in philosophy, an inclination that provides those sensitive to the conditional fallacy something to do in their free time.

Thought of in this way, the challenge is to say what the notion of philosophical success is supposed to be so that an account of it in terms of ideal agents and their subjunctively-encoded responses wouldn't legitimately bring to mind the conditional fallacy.

anon

For those interested, the comment from Lewis above is from *On the plurality of worlds* at p. 115. (No, I didn't post it.)

John K. Alexander

Is there a view of truth inherent in Pvl’s notion of philosophical failure and his model for success, that commits him, and those who agree with him, to an absolutist position that something is true iff it agrees with reality? It seems, based on his analysis, that he must maintain that if person A believes x to be true and person B believes -x to be true that one of them must be wrong in the ontological sense (obviously derived from the logical law of non-contradiction) that x and –x cannot exist at the same time. By arguing to a suitably defined ideal audience we ought therefore be able to determine whether x or –x is true.

This position overlooks the possibility, suggested by John Wisdom, that people sometimes agree on the facts but disagree on what they metaphysically entail. Wisdom, I think (it has been many years since I read Gods) would conclude that the existence of people believing both x and –x is not necessarily an indication of philosophical failure, but instead simply an indication of a difference of interpretation of what the facts mean when interpreted in some metaphysical context. If Wisdom is correct, there would be no ‘ideal’ audience. All of us come to the shared experience with our conceptual frameworks intact, where we agree on what is what (the verifiable facts or data), and where we interpret these facts utilizing our individual frameworks, more or less in a coherence model of truth which would allow for diverse alternative metaphysical positions each justified by the individual’s conceptual framework.

Paul Torek

David K Lewis (aka anon) -

I absolutely love the line "That would be a spell, not an argument." But I first encountered it in E.J. Bond's book, Reason and Value. Do you happen to know if Lewis cribbed it from Bond, or vice versa, or what? It would be nice to know whom to credit.

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