I hope you've all had the opportunity to read Mark's paper by now (if not, it is available here) and are bursting with thoughts about it. Now's your opportunity. But wait, there's more....
My commentary on the paper is here.
Mark's response to my comments is here.
Thanks to Mark for correcting some misapprehensions on my part. And of course for agreeing to participate in the group.
Now over to you.
Balaguer wants to argue that the question of whether we have free will is independent of the question of what free will is. The former question, though, is uninteresting without some understanding of the latter. We can agree on all the relevant facts about human nature, but still be at a loss as to their significance. The issue between compatibilism and libertarianism seems to concern this issue of significance: what is at stake if the facts are this way or that way; is anything worth caring about lost if the world is this rather than that way? We can agree that Kobe Bryant is a person without an adequate analysis of personhood (Balaguer's analogy). But in disputed cases (fetuses, for example), agreement on all the facts about an organism doesn't settle questions that matter (how much should we care about damage to this thing?) . (Levy's species analogy also makes this point well.) The questions we're left with may not be questions about "the nonsemantic part of the world," but then, by the same token, the question of whether we have free will (or control or authorship) of the relevant sort when human nature is such and such, isn't either a question about the nonsemantic part of the world.
Posted by: Jim White | 06/10/2009 at 01:00 PM
Two points:
1. Response to Jim White: There can of course be borderline cases in connection with lots of our predicates--'person', 'chair', 'mountain', etc. (I probably shouldn't have said in my response to Neil that for all the objects I've actually encountered in my life, I'm very reliable at determining whether they're persons). But this doesn't matter in the present case, because I think it can be argued that the relevant sorts of decisions (i.e., appropriately undetermined torn decisions) involve NON-borderline cases of authorship and control by the relevant agent. (There can also be borderline cases of authorship and control--e.g., cases involving partial determination by external (i.e., non-agential) causal influences.)
2. I realized too late (after Neil had posted his comments and my response) that I should have made one more point about the elephant case, to clarify my view there. The point is this: It could of course be that the terminological question about ‘species’ is settled, or partially settled, by metaphysical questions--e.g., by the question ‘Which concept (SPECIES-1 or SPECIES-2) does a better job of carving nature at the joints?’ But this would be a case of metaphysics being relevant to semantics and not vice versa. For we could answer the latter question independently of semantic considerations and then give our answer to conceptual analysts to use in their deliberations.
Posted by: Mark Balaguer | 06/10/2009 at 03:11 PM
Mark says that the what-is-free-will question is metaphysically uninteresting because it is just a semantic question. I find all the talk of elephants and personhood somewhat semantic.
Neil asks "what is appropriate nonrandomness?"
This term comes from footnote 2 in the paper where Mark defines a special form of L-freedom, designed to handle cases of choices where the reasons are equally balanced (the ancient liberum arbitrium indifferentiae).
"We can say that a person is libertarian free, or L-free, iff she
makes at least some decisions that are such that (a) they are both
undetermined (i.e., not causally determined by prior events) and
appropriately nonrandom, and (b) the indeterminacy here is relevant
to the appropriate nonrandomness in the sense that it generates it, or
procures it, or enhances it, or increases it, or some such thing."
Note that involving both indeterminacy ("free") and an adequate determinism ("will") is critically important.
The indeterminacy can only generate options for action. The appropriately nonrandom will determines the choice from those options. The will is not directly caused by the indeterminacy.
See http://www.informationphilosopher.com/freedom/problem/
Mark's L-freedom is discussed in his earlier paper A Coherent, Naturalistic, and Plausible Formulation of Libertarian Free Will (Noûs 38:3 (2004) 379–406), which, as he says, will be chapter 3 of his forthcoming book.
I have discussed Mark's L-freedom concepts on his page at Information Philosopher.
http://www.informationphilosopher.com/solutions/philosophers/balaguer/.
Posted by: Bob Doyle | 06/10/2009 at 06:16 PM
I'm still struggling through the paper, reply, and response but Bob's comment reminded me of a question that I wanted to ask Mark wrt L-freedom.
How does this concept solve the problem of luck other than defining it away? Suppose I give this definition: a person is C-free iff all of her decisions are (a) causally determined and (b) the determinacy here generates, or procures, or enhances, or increases, the up-to-usness of the agent's actions. That doesn't solve the problem of free will and determinism, does it?
Posted by: Joseph Campbell | 06/10/2009 at 07:13 PM
It's nice to see you commenting after a long time, Joe.
Mark, thanks for the paper. As much as I can tell, I agree with you - I would go even further and even claim that since what-kinds-of-freedom-do-we-have question is trivial and what-is-free-will question depends on semantics/intuitions, the debate itself is not very interesting.
Nonetheless, I will go ahead and try to play the devil advocate.
It seems to me that there is an important difference between terms like "elephant", "planet" and "free will". Scientific terms such as "planet" and "elephant" are merely stipulated in a way "free will" can't be.
Thus, it seems to me that conceptual analysis on "free will" can be *informative* in a way the meaning of "planet" or "elephant" isn't - where I'd say *informativeness* as opposed to being "metaphysically interesting" is what we really should care about.
Posted by: Cihan Baran | 06/10/2009 at 09:14 PM
Hi Cihan,
I would like to suggest a very simple conceptual analysis of the term "free will." It might be "informative."
I believe that "free will" has always been a confusion of two separately analyzable terms - "free" and "will" - two separable concepts.
An act of will is by its nature a determination. We might say we are "determined" by our habits, by our beliefs, and by sufficient reasons in our minds. But this in no way implies that we are determined by strict logical and physical laws going back to the beginning of the universe.
Freedom on the other hand does imply the existence of chance. Chance seems to some to imperil moral responsibility. If the world contains real chance, then luck is real. Tough luck.
But if "free" describes not the willed action - which the standard two-horned dilemma argument claims - but the person, then it means only that random thoughts occur to us that can be considered by our determining wills.
http://www.informationphilosopher.com/freedom/standard_argument.html
Thoughts are free - they "come to us."
Actions are willed - they "come from us."
John Locke said as much centuries ago. He liked the idea of Freedom and Liberty but was disturbed by the confusing debates about "free will".
He thought it was inappropriate to describe the Will itself as Free. The Will is a Determination. It is the Man who is Free.
Locke said, in the Essay, Book II, ch 21, On Power.
"I think the question is not proper, whether the will be free, but whether a man be free." "This way of talking, nevertheless, has prevailed, and, as I guess, produced great confusion."
Indeed it still does.
Posted by: Bob Doyle | 06/10/2009 at 09:52 PM
Joe asks how Mark's account deals with the luck objection. I suppose Mark will reply that the luck objection turns on the action being random or uncontrolled, but the L-free act is controlled and nonrandom. In his response to me, he says we can see that torn decisions are nonrandom without saying what authorship and control are. Now I haven't read Mark's full argument for this claim, but insofar as it rests on his analogy with the concept of personhood, I am unconvinced.
Mark points out, reasonably, that having an analysis of personhood wouldn't help him much in recognizing persons in day-to-life. Indeed, he says, things are really the other way round: it is his ability to pick out persons to which he refers when evaluating analyses of personhood. An analysis would only be useful if he encountered a borderline case, and that doesn't happen often (actually, he suggests it never happens, but that seems false: medical ethics and animal ethics is full of cases...).
But the analogy with personhood is in order only if torn decisions are *paradigms* of controlled events. In that case, we wouldn't need an analysis of control to see that they were nonrandom. Insofar as Mark's conception of torn decisions is like Kane's, though, they are not paradigms of controlled events. Instead, I think even Kane would say that they are (nearing) borderline cases. So we do need an analysis after all.
If all that's right, then Joe's objection is right too: the account simply stipulates the luck objection away, and that's question-begging (to say the least).
Posted by: Neil Levy | 06/10/2009 at 09:53 PM
Hi Neil,
Mark's "torn decisions" are as you say similar to Kane's very difficult "self-forming actions." C. A. Campbell said they were decisions that require a great deal of effort.
They are "restrictive," a term coined by John Martin Fischer to describe Peter van Inwagen's claim that only a tiny fraction of our decisions and actions could be free actions. For van Inwagen, like Mark, it is those which have closely balanced alternatives. For Kane, it is those rare and difficult decisions that are deeply moral. They are those moments in which are character is formed. Later decisions made consistent with our character and values can then be traced back to these "self-forming actions." This provides us with what Kane calls ultimate responsibility or UR.
The ancients called freedom in such cases where the alternatives are closely balanced liberum arbitrium indifferentiae, the liberty of indifference. To prove that only humans had such a freedom, they denied it to animals in the classic example of Buridan's Ass.
Now the problem with Kane's L-freedom is the introduction of some chance into the decision. Laura Ekstrom does the same. And so does van Inwagen. See my recent post where I discussed this with Galen Strawson.
At this point Kane and his fellow Libertarians have lost any claim to moral reponsibility, and lost it more assuredly than if luck had suggested an alternative possibility to them - which they then determined to be their best alternative, consistent with their character and values, their habits and current desires.
In my model (which makes "free will" compatible with both indeterminism and "adequate" determinism), although luck may enter "freely," if determination by the "will" is "up to us," then we are the originators of our actions, the authors of our lives and clearly in control, don't you think?
Joe will note that this only solves the "problem of luck" in that it explains how the will can suppress the randomness of a lucky thought.
It does not solve the luck problem as regards moral responsibility.
Posted by: Bob Doyle | 06/10/2009 at 10:40 PM
Hi everyone. Thanks for all the comments. Let me try to respond to some of them. First, Joe’s question. I’m not defining the problem away, because I’m not defining L-free choices into existence. The definition of L-freedom gives us a statement of what the world would need to be like in order for libertarianism to be true. But after I’ve given this definition, a very real problem remains: are there really any such things as L-free decisions. We can break this down into two problems: (i) are any of our decisions (and, again, I think the most important decisions here are torn decisions) undetermined in the right way?; and (ii) if any of them are undetermined in the right way, are they also appropriately nonrandom (and does the indeterminacy generate the nonrandomness)? I take these both to be VERY difficult problems. Chapter 3 of the book is entirely dedicated to arguing that the answer to question (ii) is “Yes”. (There was an earlier paper, in Nous, that argued this point as well, but the book version is much improved and expanded.) Chapter 4 is dedicated to arguing that question (i) is an open empirical question--i.e., that right now, we have no good reason for endorsing either answer to it.
So I don’t think I’m defining anything away. Part of the argument in chapter 3 is explicitly concerned with the luck objection, but I actually think the whole chapter is relevant to that objection.
Next, a word about Neil’s remark: I don’t think I really need to argue that these decisions involve PARADIGM CASES of control. I just need to argue that they ARE under our control, in the ordinary sense of the term. And that’s what I do. But I think it’s also implicit in my argument that they’re not borderline cases. (Also, I officially take back anything I said that might have implied that there are no borderline cases of persons. I didn’t mean it. I temporarily lost my mind.)
Next, to Cihan: I agree that an analysis of ‘free will’ can be informative. If we’re clear about what sorts of facts settle the what-is-free-will question, then we’ll be clear about the way in which it’s informative. E.g., if we think that an analysis is right iff it captures ordinary-language usage and intentions, then an analysis of free will would, if true, tell us something about folk usage and intentions. But I disagree with your claim that the which-kinds-of-freedom-do-we-have debate is trivial. I think the question of whether we’re L-free is wide open.
Finally, to Bob: On the libertarian view I’ve got in mind--and I think this is true of just about all libertarians--the most important indeterminacy occurs at the moment of choice, i.e., in the act of choosing between the various live options, or the tied-for-best options. There can also be prior-to-choice indeterminacies, e.g., in connection with what considerations occur to us, but these are less important, at least to most libertarians.
Posted by: Mark Balaguer | 06/10/2009 at 10:53 PM
Mark, Do you think I should be convinced by what you in the paper and response that torn decisions are controlled? Or do you think that I am within my rights not to be convinced until I read the book?
Here's something you could say (but I take it you don't; at any rate, Kane wouldn't). Suppose you think all (or a very large proportion) of our actions are torn. In that case, you could say that torn decisions = (to a first approximation) paradigms of controlled actions. In the absence of that claim, I will want to know what features of torn decisions differ from our paradigms. And we are off on the luck debate.
Posted by: Neil Levy | 06/10/2009 at 11:00 PM
Hi Neil. Certainly, you’re within your rights to remain unconvinced, because I didn’t even give the argument. All I really argued was that you shouldn’t think, without even seeing the argument, that I would need to give an analysis of authorship and control in order to argue cogently for the claim that the relevant decisions ARE authored and controlled by us. In fact, I’d say that you SHOULDN’T be convinced until you read the argument.
Also, I wouldn’t use the strategy you suggest. I do argue that if our torn decisions are appropriately undetermined, then they involve ordinary, garden-variety authorship and control. But as I said before, it’s a long, complicated argument. I don’t think there’s any shortcut to the conclusion. And I think that in order for the argument to be successful, it needs to provide a response to the luck objection. My argument does contain a response to that objection, but of course, you shouldn’t just take my word for it. You should remain unconvinced until you read the argument. But once you read the argument, you should be convinced--unless, of course, you want to be irrational.
Posted by: Mark Balaguer | 06/11/2009 at 12:18 AM
Is it just me or is there a lot of conceptual analysis going on in this thread?
Anyway, I find Mark's paper interesting but unconvincing. The metaphysical/scientific discoveries don't tell us much unless we know what we are looking for, and we won't know what we've discovered unless we have some conceptual clarity.
Here's one way to illustrate this. Suppose scientists tell us they are discovering that free will is an illusion. Suppose what they mean is that work in neuroscience and psychology gives us good reason to believe that nothing in the human decision-making process is unlawlike or uncaused. They are, we can suppose, working with a libertarian (even agent causal) conception of free will and they are taking their research to show that humans do not have such powers.
Now, for the sake of argument, suppose most ordinary people do *not* believe free will (even of the sort required for moral desert) requires such libertarian powers (e.g., that our decision-making is in part unlawlike or indeterministic, etc.). The folk just think you need compatibilist powers, like rational deliberation, planning, and self-control.
When the scientists say free will is an illusion, if the folk believe them, they'll take it to mean that rational deliberation, planning, and self-control are illusory.
That would be a bad outcome. It might make people behave worse (as suggested in recent research) or change how they feel about themselves and others *and for no good reason* (i.e., based on a conceptual confusion). This would occur even though, we can suppose, no one (not the scientists, folk, or philosophers) disagrees about the scientific and metaphysical facts. It would occur because people are understanding the concept of free will in different ways.
This makes me think that the conceptual debates about free will are not irrelevant and that the scientific study of human decision-making cannot proceed successfully without some clarity about the relevant concepts (e.g., neuroscientists and psychologists use concepts like "decision," and "voluntary" in different ways and it leads them to carry out research and interpret results in different ways...)
Posted by: Eddy Nahmias | 06/11/2009 at 09:22 AM
Hi Eddy. Thanks for the comments. I believe (if I didn’t read your remarks too quickly and miss an implication of something you said) that I agree with all of it and that none of it is inconsistent with my view. There are two really central claims here. The first is this:
(1) Scientific study of human decision-making processes can’t proceed effectively without conceptual clarity.
I completely agree with this. Here’s one way to put this point, in the lingo of my paper: You can’t make much progress on the which-kinds-of-freedom-do-humans-have question until you’ve got some clear kinds of freedom on the table. And to get some clear kinds of freedom on the table, it’s going to take some good hard work by conceptual analysts to figure out the best way to articulate the various kinds of freedom. E.g., if conceptual analysts have worked out five really clear kinds of freedom, then those who are trying to answer the which-kinds-of-freedom-do-we-have question can make much better progress. And on the other hand, if, e.g., (a) scientists are working with a kneejerk, unreflective assumption that free will is indeterministic, so that they’ve got some sort of libertarian freedom in mind, and (b) they haven’t thought through exactly how to articulate L-freedom, so that they’ve got all sorts of false assumptions about what L-freedom is, then this is bad.
But notice that this all has to do with the *articulation of concepts*, and again, I think this is metaphysically important. Indeed, one of the central points of my own work is to provide a clear conception of the exact sort of indeterminacy that’s needed for L-freedom--what it needs to consist in, where it needs to be located, etc.--and how this indeterminacy needs to connect up with authorship, control, rationality, etc.
Note, however, that once we’ve given scientists a set of clear concepts of freedom, so that they can try to determine which ones we possess, it will not help them at all to be told which of these concepts of freedom, if any, provide correct definitions of ‘free will’--and this is the point I was arguing in the paper. In other words, there still doesn’t seem to be any need here to figure out the correct answer to the what-is-free-will question.
The second main point Eddy makes is that it would be bad if (a) scientists announced that we don’t have free will, and (b) what they had in mind was X-freedom, and (c) the kind of free will that ordinary folk care about is Y-freedom, and (d) people become (unnecessarily) depressed over the scientific announcement.
I agree that this would be bad. Now, what does this tell us? How ought we to remedy the situation? Well, one might adopt either of the following two views here:
(2) It would be important in the above scenario to educate scientists and ordinary folk about the difference between X-freedom and Y-freedom and how the scientific discovery is about X-freedom and what people care about is Y-freedom. If we do this, folk depression over the scientific discovery will disappear. Thus, there is no need to answer the what-is-free-will question here. All we need is conceptual *clarity*. I.e., you just need to show people that what they care about is Y-freedom. You don’t need to show them that free will *is* Y-freedom.
(3) In order to get rid of the folk depression, we would need to show people that Y-freedom is *real* free will, and so we would need to answer the what-is-free-will question.
Stance (2) is obviously consistent with my view, but I want to point out that stance (3) is also consistent with my view. My claim is that the what-is-free-will question is essentially irrelevant to the metaphysical project of discovering the nature of human decision-making processes. But I haven’t claimed that it’s irrelevant to the pragmatic job of eliminating folk depression, and it may be that it’s not irrelevant to that job.
That said, I should also add that I find stance (3) dubious at best. In particular, I don’t see why we should think that there’s a very tight connection between what we care about, or what’s depressing to us, and the answer to the what-is-free-will question. One of my problems with the what-is-free-will question is that there is no consensus (implicit or explicit) on the sorts of facts that settle this question. There are numerous factors here. E.g., there are the kind(s) of freedom that correspond to ordinary usage and intentions, the kind(s) that are required for moral responsibility, the kind(s) that humans actually have, the kind(s) that we would be depressed if we didn’t have, etc., etc., etc. Why think that what would depress us is more than one factor among many? And, more generally, what principled, non-arbitrary reason could we give for adopting some particular view of what settles the what-is-free-will question? Finally, I think it’s also worth noting here that different people would apparently be depressed by different things. I don’t think Eddy would be depressed to hear that we aren’t L-free. But I would--and this despite the fact that I lean toward the thesis that L-freedom is not required for moral responsibility.
Posted by: Mark Balaguer | 06/11/2009 at 12:37 PM
This is a really interesting paper & discussion.
My objection to Mark's paper is simple: the what-is-free-will question is important to the what-kinds-of-freedoms-do-we-have question because it explains the kind of analysis that we would find satisfying.
Suppose I asked whether someone was feeling anger at time t and you told me how all the molecules in the universe were moving at time t. Suppose I found this a dissatisfying answer.
Then the question is: why is it dissatisfying? Would not the answer to that question necessitate a closer look at what-is-anger? Would the explication of that question then be "merely semantic"? No. It would point to a possible category mistake.
Similarly, if I ask: how is man free and you answer: "he has this freedom and that freedom and the other under x, y, and z frameworks" and I find that answer dissatisfying -- is not the question: why is this dissatisfying?
And that would lead to a what-is-freedom question, and the answer would come back: "free, as in free will."
Posted by: Akilesh Ayyar | 06/11/2009 at 01:20 PM
Hi Mark,
Libertarians (you, Kane, Ekstrom, van Inwagen) who want chance at the "moment of choice" should not want the choice to be "made by chance."
I suggest all that you need is chance "during the process of choice," i.e., during deliberation in which you consult your creativity (which employs indeterminism) to generate more alternative possibilities, until you come up with one that meets your rational criteria.
I like cogitation, rather than deliberation, and call my model the Cogito, because it emphasizes the shaking around of new possibilities.
Now I do not deny that you can decide to use chance directly in your choice, to flip a mental or physical coin. But then this is a deliberate decision you can feel is "up to you."
When alternatives are truly balanced, your decision is probably made this way.
But if chance entered the decision without your control, if it "just happened" to you, you would not regard this as your considered decision.
On reflection, you would probably says something like - "I was out of my mind" (as you said above to Neil) - and correct the decision that by chance happened to you.
I have been in personal correspondence with Kane, who has given me permission to cite his views. He basically agrees with you as follows:
"If all of our choices are determined at the time of choice that would not be libertarian freedom even if some chance events in the past were responsible for forming some of the determining factors that now determine our choice because however the determining factors were formed in the past, all of our choices would be determined when they are made."
My Cogito model does not only rely on "chance events in the past" long before our deliberations. We can and always do introduce chance during the process of choice as we ponder the possibilities and generate new ones. Randomness in our brains and in our environment contribute to the generation of new possibilities.
Arguably all biological organisms do something like this. As you said in your paper Libertarianism As Scientifically Reputable, "it might very well turn out that parakeets have free will."
Note that Liberty (and thus the proper aim of Libertarians in my view) is to understand how the world can be indeterministic, thus breaking the chain of strict causal logical and physical determinism (accepting PvI's Consequence Argument), while maintaining an "adequate determinism" that prevents our decisions from being completely random and indeterministic (the concern in PvI's Mind Argument).
As Joe Campbell once put it, we must show that indeterminism can help with freedom, but also that it does no harm to our determinations, to our authorship and control.
If you just expand your "moment of choice" to cover the time of deliberation, then it seems to me that it allows "indeterminism that is appropriately non-random" in a way that should satisfy both libertarians and compatibilists today who accept modern physics.
Determinists and libertarians agree that the determinism we have is only "near determinism" (Honderich), "almost causal determinism" (Fischer), "micro-indeterminism" (Kane), "determined for all practical purposes" (van Inwagen).
Kane is optimistic. He says "the Cogito view I agree is something that could be the beginning of forging a compromise. I've always thought that, because it is an important part of the libertarian view, even if not the whole."
Kane developed his own two-stage model, free - then will, in the early 1980's, but was not happy with it.
The Cogito model is not original with me (I have only contributed a solution to the location of quantum uncertainty, the where and when problem).
Two-stage models of free will were independently developed by William James, Henri Poincaré, Arthur Holly Compton, A.O. Gomes, Karl Popper, Henry Margenau, Daniel Dennett, Robert Kane, Alfred Mele, and Martin Heisenberg.
Mark is urging us to develop a variety of "kinds of freedom" to improve our communications with the neuroscience community.
I believe that young philosophers should consider two-stage models as the most probable explanation for our complex concept of free will. Kane thinks a philosophical consensus might find them a satisfactory "compromise."
To me it is more than a compromise, it is a synthesis of indeterminist/incompatibilist/libertarian views with determinist/compatibilist views.
Please see http://www.informationphilosopher.com/freedom/
Posted by: Bob Doyle | 06/11/2009 at 02:22 PM
1. Response to Bob: You make lots of points worth thinking about here. Let me just say three things. First, a rather minor point: I don’t consider myself to be a libertarian because I think it’s an open question whether we’re L-free. Second, I agree that if the moment-of-choice undetermined event were external to the agent--if it just “happened to the agent”--then that wouldn’t give us genuine authorship, control, etc., and so it wouldn’t give us genuine L-freedom. In order to have genuine L-freedom, it needs to be the case that the relevant undetermined event (and keep in mind that it needs to be undetermined in a very specific way) IS the decision, i.e., the conscious, intentional, mental event. This idea might seem a bit obscure, but I develop it at length in the book (chapter 3). Third, as for prior-to-choice indeterminacies, I don’t want to deny that these can be important in various ways. But I agree with Kane that, by themselves, they are not enough to give libertarians (or at least libertarians of the sort I’ve got in mind) what they want. On the prior-to-choice-indeterminacy view, the choice itself will be determined by prior-to-choice events; but what libertarians (of the sort I’ve got in mind) want is a certain kind of moment-of-choice indeterministic freedom. This, I think, is almost definitionally required for the truth of this sort of libertarianism.
2. Response to Akilesh: I guess what I want to say is that I wouldn’t find it unsatisfying to be told, for all the different kinds of freedom that we’ve articulated, which ones humans have and which ones they don’t have. This would tell me everything I want to know (relative to the issue of free will) about the nature of human decision-making processes. It wouldn’t tell me EVERYTHING I might want to know--e.g., it wouldn’t tell me which kinds of freedom are required for moral responsibility--but as I argue in the paper, finding out which kinds of freedom are required for moral responsibility wouldn’t tell me anything substantive about the nature of human decision-making processes.
Posted by: Mark Balaguer | 06/11/2009 at 04:33 PM
Mark,
I don't see how it's possible to ever articulate all the freedoms
humans have, because the very choice of the categorization of
freedoms, and the kind of evidence used to prove their existence, will
be satisfying only against a background concept of free will.
For example I could argue that humans are generally "free" to move
their limbs (a physical freedom), to practice religious ceremonies (a
legal freedom), and so on. Evidence to prove these might be given from
viewing people move and from legal texts, respectively.
These are clearly not the relevant kinds of freedoms we've been
talking about, and their enumeration and proof would be unsatisfying.
The kinds of evidence generally accepted in their proof is similarly
irrelevant.
Why? Because of an underlying belief about what freedom-as-free-will
is which governs our notions of the relevant issue. If
L-libertarianism seems an important freedom to this discussion, it's
due to such a belief. Whether experimental psychology evidence is
viewed as bearing on its existence it is also due to the underlying
free will definition.
The disanalogy with the "planet" example is that there, the relevant
physical phenomena and associated evidence are not in controversy.
Here, the very identity of the thing being discussed is in very
serious question.
A better analogy might be to the debate about whether consciousness can be explained in materialist terms. If one said in response: "let's not worry about whether consciousness is material, let's simply list all the kinds of ways in which we're conscious," this wouldn't work. Qualia and the very nature of the phenomenon are in question. People who disbelieve in qualia would frame "the ways in which we are conscious" and the evidence for it differently. In that case as in this, you can't catalog the kinds without first agreeing on what it is that's being catalogued.
Posted by: Akilesh Ayyar | 06/11/2009 at 06:31 PM
Hi all,
I think that Mark point in the paper is rather simple, and obviously correct if you accept his understanding of what's metaphysically interesting. His point can be put like this: (i) Metaphysically interesting questions are about the nonsemantic part of world, and (ii) the What is free will? question is about the semantic part of the world (e.g. the meaning of English words and the intentions of English speakers), so (iii) the What is free will? question isn't metaphysically interesting.
I think that this argument is compelling, and it contributes to our thinking of how the free-will debate should proceed and, more generally, how metaphysical debates should proceed. I think that this is Mark's aim, and one that should be taken seriously to say the least. Philosophers have been worried about what they're doing for some time now.
The main problem I have is this: There is a good explanation for why the compatibility question has dominated the free will debate in recent years. The explanation I have in mind is that philosophers (I think) are primarily interested in the ordinary notion of freedom or free will, and so want to clarify THAT concept in order to see if we the power that that concept describes. And a natural assumption to be made is that the empirical results concerning the nature of human decision-making processes won't tell us whether we have the sort of power described by the ordinary concept of free will, even though such results may (or may not) tell us whether we have the powers described by other concepts of freedom. I'm interested in whether or not I have the freedom described by the ordinary concept. I'm not (at least not right now) interested in whether we possess other sorts of freedom, if there are any.
Now I think that this is consistent with what Mark says in his paper. But I do think there is a tension between the kinds of freedom Mark is ultimately interested in, and the kinds of freedom that philosophers have been tradionally interested in.
Posted by: Devon | 06/11/2009 at 08:19 PM
I find that the links to Neil's commentary and Mark's response are broken. Anyone else have this problem?
Posted by: Paul Torek | 06/11/2009 at 09:14 PM
Of course there's a very tight connection between what we care about and the answer to the what-is-free-will question. That is, once we get in the right neighborhood of cares (we care about the Stanley Cup, too - but we all know that's not at issue here). Free will is not a concept invented in the course of dispassionate scientific observations or logico-mathematical calculations. Our concerns shape the usage of "free will" and thereby severely constrain the range of interpretations of our linguistic practices. A definition of "free will" which failed to connect to those concerns would be as hopeless, as a definition of "soul" which was irrelevant to our concerns about the possibility of an afterlife.
Neil (June 10 5:53pm) makes an interesting point about paradigm cases. Looking back on my own life, all the paradigm cases of free action are highly expressive of my character. None were torn decisions. They were often slam-dunk decisions that, once the to-be-chosen alternative was imagined, were crystal clear.
Which leads me to ask Bob: Why "involving both indeterminacy (`free') and an adequate determinism (`will') [are] critically important"? What good does the indeterminacy do?
Mark proposes that an undetermined event "IS the decision, i.e., the conscious, intentional, mental event." But insofar as it's undetermined, it's undetermined by me. The fact that I did X rather than Y in this case says nothing about the kind of person I was, going into the decision. (It might say more about what kind of person I am afterwards.) Such a thing would be metaphysically interesting, to be sure, but it hardly seems a paragon of agency. I don't see how it could be more free than a clear-cut decision.
Posted by: Paul Torek | 06/11/2009 at 10:37 PM
This is a great paper that lays down, quite eloquently, some important things to remember.
The principle difficulties I have with the paper are:
1. I don't consider the ideas that new. The chief benefit of the article seems to be, not that it makes huge innovations, but that it crystallizes and makes plain some ideas that have been left assumed or poorly articulated. That, in and of itself, is hugely important though.
2. The article goes beyond its original claim (that the compatibilism question reduces to semantics and doesn't involve metaphysics), with which I wholeheartedly agree, and states that this question is irrelevant to the "do we have free will" question. This goes too far. The inference is based on a strained, or too thin, view of the "do we have free will" question. In particular, it's based on only focusing on the metaphysics of that question, and not the semantics.
I would add that the article seems to go too far in saying that the compatibilism question is relevant to that question in only a trivial sense. It's not trivial at all in just this sense: it will probably decide the question. That is, many people already have grave doubts about the existence of L-freedom, and these doubts seem based on reasonable evidence about the scientific/mechanical working of the brain, etc. In that case, the "do we have free will" question *turns* on the compatibilism question, which can hardly mean that the latter is irrelevant, or only trivially relevant, to the former.
Here's an example: suppose that two law firms are engaged in a huge litigation. Both sides have spent 20 million dollars in attorneys fees and deposing expert witnesses, etc. Near the end, it becomes clear that the entire case will turn on whether the contract in dispute uses the word "predominantly" to mean greater than 60% or greater than 70%.
Now the question "is 60% or 70% 'predominantly'" seems to be just semantics, just words, no metaphysics involved whatsoever. One would be tempted to say that the question is trivial. One would be tempted to say that the question is irrelevant to the "is the contract enforceable" question, or only relevant in a trivial way. That would be a mistake. That tiny, little semantic question decides the whole case--$40 million. The free will debate is like that.
One last point: Paul above suggests that our concerns shape the definition of free will. I think Pereboom's remarks in the intro of Living Without Free Will are decisive against this point: we must acknowledge the possibility that (i) we thought that free will means X; (ii) we thought X was valuable; and (iii) it turns out that X isn't valuable. In that case, free will *still* means X; we don't fudge the definition so that our vocabulary sweeps our value error under the carpet. Our language practices have to leave room for speaking about, and acknowledging, the value error. If the definition of "free will" changes to always be something valuable, then we have no easy way to say "we thought free will wasn't valuable, but we were wrong."
Here's an analogy: just as Kant rightly says that existence is not a predicate, so too "valuable" is not a predicate. We consider concepts, and then we ask whether any instances of that concept exist, and we similarly ask if we value such an instance. But valuable isn't built into the definition of the thing (at least not into free will).
Posted by: Kip | 06/12/2009 at 12:25 AM
Hi Paul,
Indeterminacy does these critical things vital to the Libertarian argument for "free will."
1) Indeterminacy breaks the causal chain of strict logical and physical determinism back to the origin of the universe.
This involves what Peter van Inwagen and others call the Laws of Nature and the Fixed Past in his Consequence argument.
What quantum indeterminacy does is show us that the Laws of Nature are not deterministic, they are statistical laws. To be sure, for large objects, these laws approach the classical laws (e.g, Newtonian physics) to the limits of our observational/experimental accuracy.
This is what I mean by "adequate" determinism. It is as much determinism as the physical world contains.
Adequate determinism is all that a compatibilist/determinist could ask for to insure that our decisions are "up to us," that we are the authors of our actions, that we are in control.
2) Indeterminacy generates novelty, bringing new information into an otherwise static, information-preserving universe.
You know the Laplacian super-intelligence that can predict the future of the universe from knowledge of the positions and velocities of all the material particles at any instant. (This is the natural physical equivalent of a supernatural deity that has perfect foreknowledge).
In a word, indeterminacy vitiates both the super-natural and the super-intellingent. In theology, it says the future of the universe is unknown (Open Theism).
3) Indeterminacy generates alternative possibilities for human thought and action that a Frankfurt demon can not anticipate.
Genuine alternative possibilities means that the past may be fixed, but the future is truly ambiguous, logically and physically, depending on your decisions.
Logically, Aristotle's Sea Battle showed that there are statements neither true nor false (three-valued logic) until the future resolves the truth or falsity.
Physically, each of us may have a truly original thought and act in a truly original way that changes the world.
So what is the problem with a concept that helps us to understand Mark's what-is-free-will question, indeed understand it metaphysically?
The problem is its dependence on notorious chance, on randomness, on chaos. As William James said of both hard and soft determinists, they have an "antipathy to chance."
For the religious philosopher, real, irreducible, and absolute chance has been regarded as atheistic. It denies intelligent design in creationism, for example.
______________
The above reasons are why Libertarians embrace indeterminacy.
So far, so good.
But they are way too enthusiastic about it. They want it all the time.
Some of them, including Mark, Bob Kane, Laura Ekstrom, and van Inwagen specifically say indeterminacy must be involved directly in our free decisions.
They want chance to be the cause of our actions!
Now this is absurd, but perhaps it is a leftover residual from the wish for a metaphysical freedom, a Kantian noumenal freedom, a God-given freedom denied to animals like Buridan's ass.
Libertarians think only such a freedom can deny the iron grip of determinism at every instant, including what they mistakenly describe as the "moment of choice."
A decision does not occur at an instant of time. It is a process of deliberation. In the early stages of deliberation, indeterminacy generates those possibilities.
Even as late as the "moment of choice" itself, a decision can be postponed and sent back to the possibility generator for "second thoughts."
Note we can therefore involve chance in our deliberations up to some minimal time (perhaps the Libet time?) before our "final" decision, which will be "adequately determined," based on our character and values, our habits and preferences, our current feelings and desires.
In short, our choice will be everything a compatibilist/determinist could want in terms of feeling we are the authors of our decisons and in control of our actions.
And enough chance will be involved in our decisions to provides the causal chain disconnect needed by PvI's Consequence argument.
So what's not to like about the two-stage model of "free" (chance) and "will" (choice) in a temporal sequence?
Compatibilists have pointed out for centuries to the Libertarians that if chance directly causes our actions, that is no help, only harm, to the idea that we are the authors of our lives.
And van Inwagen's Mind argument confirms these fears. If you do not know van Inwagen's labels for the two horns in the dilemma of determinism vs. indeterminism, please see my discussion of the standard argument against free will.
http://www.informationphilosopher.com/freedom/standard_argument.html
The logical conclusion of the standard argument, first articulated as such by Jack Smart in his 1961 Mind article that led van Inwagen to call it the Mind argument, is this.
Determinism and Indeterminism are logical opposites. They are contradictiories. Only one of them can be logically "true."
The simplistic physical application of this correct logical conclusion, is this.
If determinism is false and indeterminism true, all hell will break loose - causality is impossible, logical arguments are not valid, we can not reason, science can establish nothing, in short, the universe falls apart.
If you think I exaggerate the fears about indeterminism, please read the standard argument page on my Information Philosopher website.
To contain any "harm," we need to show Compatibilists that indeterminacy is limited to the critically important role of providing them with novel possibilities for action.
Do you think we can get compatibilists to calm these fears? Will they consider this? Bob Kane thinks there is room for a grand compromise here between contending Libertarian and Compatibilist views.
As a quantum physicist, I can assure you that indeterminism is "true" in the logical sense above. But you can be equally sure that quantum indeterminacy has a minimum and negligible effect on the macroscopic processes that provide us with our causal everyday world.
We are just lucky that we have chance available to us where and when we need it. It plays a critical role not only in "free will" but in all the creation processes in the universe, from microscopic objects like atoms and molecules to macroscopic objects like galaxies, stars, and planets.
Please see my story of creation.
http://www.informationphilosopher.com/introduction/creation/
Posted by: Bob Doyle | 06/12/2009 at 01:57 PM
Hi everyone. Just a few responses to some of the points that have been made…
First, to Devon: You say that people care about the ordinary notion of freedom and not OTHER notions of freedom, i.e., the ones I’m talking about. But the ordinary notion (if there is such a beast) IS one of the kinds of freedom I’m talk about. I’m talking about ALL the kinds of freedom that philosophers have articulated. Now, of course, it’s possible that no one has succeeded in articulating the ordinary notion, but that would just mean that we have some more work to do in terms of concept articulation. If we ignore this possibility, and if we assume that we’ve got, say, five kinds of freedom on the table, then one of these kinds of freedom (perhaps more, but let’s ignore that possibility) IS the ordinary notion. So I’m not ignoring any interesting kinds of freedom.
I’m also not suggesting that we shouldn’t try to figure out which kind of freedom
is ordinary freedom. I’m simply saying that if we already know that, say, we have freedom 1, 2, 3, and 4, and that we don’t have freedom 5, then we’re not learning anything genuinely new about ourselves if we learn that freedom 3 is ordinary freedom.
Kip suggests that in learning this, we would be “settling the debate”. There is, of course, a clear sense in which that’s true. But I would say that if we understand “settling the debate” in this way, then settling the debate doesn’t tell us anything genuinely new about humans. We can also settle the debate about how many planets there are in the solar system by coming up with a definition of ‘planet’, but in so doing we wouldn’t be learning anything substantively new about the solar system.
To Paul: I’m not suggesting that there’s NO connection between the which-kinds-of-freedom-do-we-care-about question and the what-is-free-will question. I’m simply resisting the idea that the former is some sort of trump card. The problem is that if you ask ten philosophers what sorts of facts settle conceptual analysis disputes, you get ten different answers. It also seems unlikely to me that our “cares” zero in on a unique kind of freedom. It also seems unlikely to me that our usage and intentions zero in on a unique kind of freedom. All of this leads me to have serious doubts about whether there’s anything even close to a fact of the matter about the answer to the what-is-free-will question. We might be better off asking more local questions like “Which kinds of freedom correspond to ordinary usage and intentions?”; “Which kinds of freedom are required for which kinds of moral responsibility?”; “Which kinds of freedom do people care about?”; “Which kinds ought they to care about?”; etc.
Also, Paul, you say that insofar as a decision is undetermined, it’s undetermined by me. Well, that’s just the old worry about libertarianism that’s been raised in different forms by Hobbes, Hume, Hobart, and contemporary advocates of the luck objection. And as I said earlier, this is just the objection that I dedicate much of my book to responding to. I wish I could give the argument here, but I am reluctant to summarize a 30-page argument in one paragraph; I would just shortchange it.
Finally, to Bob: I certainly don’t want to claim that chance is the cause of our actions. In fact, I’m not exactly sure what that would even mean. Moment-of-choice libertarians can say different things here; one thing they can say is that (at least in ideal cases) the choice is probabilistically caused by the agent’s reasons for action. Now, obviously they’ll have to say more than this; in particular, they’ll have to say why, if the causation is only probabilistic, there isn’t a freedom-damaging kind of luck present. But, again, I think this challenge can be met.
Also, on the libertarian view I’ve got in mind, we don’t have an every-moment sort of L-freedom. We can go about our business in an essentially Humean sort of way for hours on end; but every so often, we’re presented with a choice, and we feel torn, and we pause for at least a moment, and then we make a torn decision. Most of these (but not all) will be pretty unimportant--e.g., should I work out before going to the office?; should I get off the freeway in a traffic jam or take surface streets?; should I order chicken or beef?; should I vacation in Paris or Rome? But SOMETIMES, I think, we make more important torn decisions, decisions that have serious moral implications, or serious implications for our own personal futures.
Posted by: Mark Balaguer | 06/12/2009 at 03:12 PM
One more point about Kip’s suggestion that we can settle the free will debate by figuring out the correct definition of ‘free will’. I just said that this is true on a certain understanding of “settling the debate”. But what I meant is that it’s true (on that understanding “settling the debate”) RELATIVE to Kip’s assumption that we can already answer the which-kinds-of-freedom-do-we-have question. But I actually reject that assumption. E.g., I think we have no good reasons right now for endorsing or rejecting the thesis that we’re L-free. This, I think, is a substantively open question.
Posted by: Mark Balaguer | 06/12/2009 at 03:24 PM
"I think we have no good reasons right now for endorsing or rejecting the thesis that we’re L-free. This, I think, is a substantively open question."
Mark, I'm wondering: should we refrain from responsibility practices and ascriptions of desert premised on L-freedom until such time as we know for sure we're L-free? This raises the question of whether there are any real differences between libertarians and compatibilists in the sorts of practices and ascriptions they think are justified.
Posted by: Tom Clark | 06/12/2009 at 05:06 PM