Does anyone know why Dickinson S. Miller published his famous free-will paper under the name R. E. Hobart?
The Encyclopedia of Philosophy lists one other paper published under the pseudonym and several published by Miller under his own name.
« Problems of the Self at CEU | Main | Crowd-sourcing my SPA Remarks »
You can follow this conversation by subscribing to the comment feed for this post.
The comments to this entry are closed.
Randy,
Maybe he thought it would be super-cool to be known as having the first initial, "R."
John
Posted by: John Fischer | 02/07/2012 at 04:18 PM
He probably knew how hard it was to get a job with free will as your AOS.
(This was before the society for philosophy of agency...)
Posted by: Tamler Sommers | 02/07/2012 at 04:30 PM
While I am tempted to say that anyone who has actually been to Hobart (Tasmania) will appreciate how free will is inconceivable there, I will resist temptation.
Here's a speculation. Miller was a student, and then friend, of James. The paper itself was critical of James' view. Hence the pseudonym.
One problem with the speculation is that James was dead, but Miller may nevertheless have preferred to avoid being seen to criticize him.
Posted by: Neil | 02/08/2012 at 05:41 AM
He knew his reputation as a compatibilist would have his career.
Posted by: Joe Campbell | 02/08/2012 at 08:38 AM
John, that hypothesis hadn't occurred to me, but it sounds very reasonable. Tamler, could be, though I don't know that Miller had plans to return to academia. Neil, that sounds plausible except for the "one problem" part. Joe, yes, it's risky work.
Posted by: R. Clarke | 02/08/2012 at 10:10 AM
The Paul Edwards edited *Encyclopedia of Philosophy* answers your question. He did it "for obscure reasons". I'm not quite sure what that means, but I think it means it was agent-caused.
Posted by: Neil | 02/08/2012 at 10:25 AM
I'm relieved that he did it for reasons, however obscure.
Posted by: Manuel "Why am I enjoying this thread so much?" Vargas | 02/08/2012 at 10:27 PM
Manuel--wouldn't Miller say he did it from "obscure causes" even if they mapped some sort of epiphenomenal "obscure reasons"? Though of course he could have done otherwise had other obscure causes obtained. This thread is fun indeed--though I must confess I've always wondered (with Clarke) why he did it in the sense of justifying the fake moniker (at least to himself).
Posted by: V. Alan White | 02/09/2012 at 11:57 AM
Now is the time to own up if anyone here is operating under a pseudonym.
Posted by: Allan McCay | 02/09/2012 at 07:51 PM
I confess. This is not my real name.
Posted by: Anonymous | 02/12/2012 at 01:54 PM
I think Jack Smart used to tell a story explaining this: apparently Miller used the pseudonym because he was concerned to avoid rejection for ageist reasons. Hobart apparently refers to Hobart College, where he must have studied.
Posted by: Daniel Cohen | 02/13/2012 at 06:11 AM
According to the Encyclopedia of Philosophy, Miller published 4 papers (in 1937, 1945, 1949, and 1951) under his own name after publishing the free will paper (in 1934) under the pseudonym.
Altogether he published 3 papers in Mind, one (in 1929) under his own name and two under the pseudonym. The other Hobart paper was "Hume Without Scepticism."
Posted by: R. Clarke | 02/13/2012 at 11:12 AM
Relevant to this topic, see Bob Doyle's discussion of how many people misquote the title of the Hobart/Miller article (end of this page):
http://www.informationphilosopher.com/solutions/philosophers/hobart/
If he's right about all these cases, how the hell did that happen? Of course, it won't help future citations that it is also misquoted at PhilPapers: http://philpapers.org/s/R.%20E.%20Hobart
Posted by: Eddy Nahmias | 02/13/2012 at 03:13 PM
Within the paper, Hobart (Miller) usually calls the thing in question "determinism."
Posted by: R. Clarke | 02/13/2012 at 05:22 PM
I think Bob is unfair to philosophers in suggesting that those who misquote the title haven't read the paper. This kind of substitution of a familiar word for an unfamiliar is just a slip. I myself think free will probably does require determination, though not determinism.
Posted by: Neil | 02/14/2012 at 05:10 AM
That's what I get for posting without having read the paper (for a decade or so). So, Randy, is it fair to say that Hobiller (Millbart?) treats "determinism" and "determination" as synonyms?
Posted by: Eddy Nahmias (or is it?) | 02/14/2012 at 01:22 PM
The first sentence of the paper mentions "the controversy between the doctrine of free will and determinism." Hobart/Miller says "the two assertions are entirely consistent, [and] one of them strictly implies the other."
Perhaps *determination* of everything is what we have when *determinism* is true.
Posted by: R. Clarke | 02/14/2012 at 02:05 PM
I became familiar with Hobart/Miller's article in the late 80s when I argued in Analysis that that paper attempted to show (in effect)that the points of the Mind and Ethics arguments were consistent with each other. In fact I think the title shows that: FW as involving determination AND inconceivable without it (Ethics and Mind combined to produce the free action of causally determined agents parsed as FW). The title isn't being long-winded--it's indicative of its thesis.
I'd say that the distinction between the two terms is that determination denotes any process/events/states governed by determinism. So consequential processes/events/states of FW involve determination by antecedent processes/events/states as governed by determinism (rather than by fate, say).
Posted by: V. Alan White | 02/14/2012 at 03:17 PM